In message <001801be5ca4$85647da0$e2194018@CS1000568-A.cgno1.ab.wave.hom
e.com>, David McFadzean <morpheus@lucifer.com> writes
>
>Given that worldviews are inconsistent,
>how can you tell when there are 2 or more? The inconsistency
>criterion might not be a feasible boundary to slice them up.
>Does that make any more sense?
Yes, but I can't answer it. "Worldview" is not a well defined term, and I doubt that there is any universally correct way to slice them up. What I've been meaning by it -- and I hope this accords with most others here -- though I never really thought it out before -- is: if it's based on a different set of assumptions, it's a different worldview. Hey, I just came up with the correct way to slice them! Didn't I?
-- Robin